Level 2 - 190 questions
191 Non-specific protection factors of the body: 1 Volyutinovye grain 2 Mucous obalochka 3 Ribosomes 4 Antibodies 5 cytoplasm
192 Humoral factors of the body's defense: 1 Complement 2 Antibodies 3 Vitamins 4 Vaccines 5 Hormones
193 Infectious process has: 1 One time 2 Two periods 3 Three periods 4 Four period 5 Five periods
194 The minimum dose of virulence in bacteria: 1 infectious dose 2 Sowing dose 3. DLm 4. LD50 5. DcL
195 lethal dose of virulence in bacteria: 1 infectious dose 2 Sowing dose 3. DcL 4. LD50 5. DLm
196 pathogenicity factors responsible for attachment to baktrey macroorganism: 1 Plazmokaogulaza 2 Neuraminidase 3 Hyaluronidase 4 Aggression 5 Adhesion
197 pathogenicity factors responsible for the protection of bacteria from phagocytes and antibodies: 1 Plazmokoogulaza 2 Neuraminidase 3 Lecithinase capsule 4 5 Dispute
198 Net culture is: 1 The collection of organisms of one species 2 The collection of microorganisms of different species 3 The set of micro-organisms of one kind 4 The set of micro-organisms of different genera 5 The set of Gram-negative organisms
199 The purpose of fixing the smear: 1 To identify the capsule 2 To identify the flagella 3 For degreasing preparations 4 To keep the size of bacteria 5 for bacterial attachment to the slide
200 Stages of viral replication: 1 logarithmic growth 2 Negative accelerate breeding 3 Maximum 4 Fixed 5 Synthesis of early and late proteins
201 In some of the clinical stages of whooping cough is most contagious: 1 The incubation period 2 Bluetongue stage 3 paroxysmal stage 4 Step recovery 5 prodrome
202 pathogenic factors of the pathogen, which is manifested penetration of one cell to another: 1 Invasion 2 Aggression 3 Adhesion 4 Penetration 5 Chemotaxis
203 For the development of the infectious process, you must: 1 Symbiosis normal microflora macroorganism 2 The absence of a pathogenic microbe 3 Implementation of the temperate phage 4 The penetration of the pathogen in susceptible macroorganism 5 Normal ambient conditions
204 Forms of generalized infection, depending on the spread of germs: 1 Alopecia 2 Septicaemia pyosepticemia, bacteremia 3 Generalized 4 Centralized 5 Exogenous
205 Superinfection: 1 re-infection by the same pathogen after recovery 2 reinfection with the same agent prior to liquidation of the primary disease 3 Infection pathogen distinguishing exotoxin 4 occur in diseases with a strong immunity 5 Available at the expense of the normal microflora
206 Hemotrofy 1 Use of solar energy 2 Use the energy of redox reactions 3 are acid 4 Bacteriophages 5 Divide the longitudinal division
207 On-site administration of allergen observed: 1 infiltrate 2 Burn 3 rash 4 Dry scab 5 The development of necrosis
208 Colouring by Ziehl-Nielsen used to identify: 1 dispute 2 Capsules 3 Grains volutin 4 AFB 5 of the cytoplasmic membrane
209. smear from culture of microbes under the microscope show large sticks blue and purple with a centrally located education, colored in red. What are these sticks: 1 E. coli 2 anthrax 3 Stick plague 4 tubercle bacillus 5.-hemophilic vaginal wand 210 material for bacteriological examination for suspected abdominal fever in the 1st week of the disease is: 1 stools 2 Bile 3 Blood 4 Urine 5 washings bowel
211 Salmonella pathogenicity factors are: 1 endotoxin enterotoxin ability to multiply in macrophages 2 Neuraminidase 3 cytotoxin 4 They drank 5 Gistotoksin
212 Material for bacteriological examination of typhoid fever at 2-3 week of illness: 1 Bile 2 Blood 3 stools, urine 4 washings stomach 5 washings bowel
213. kaprologicheskom study of stool under the microscope show small rod-shaped bacteria. Name the bacteria: 1 Enterobacteriaceae 2 Campylobacter 3 Helicobacter 4 fuzobakterii 5 Legionella
214 The ability of Gram-painted in blue-violet color depends on: 1 Presence of carbohydrates 2 Properties peptidoglycan interact with paint 3 Having MTC 4 Presence of fatty acids 5 wall thickness
215 The action of Vibrio cholerae pathogenicity factor due dehydration in cholera: 1 actively motile vibrio 2 Adhesion of Vibrio 3 Penetration 4.-exotoxin choleric 5 endotoxin
216 Sterilization: 1 The complete destruction of all (vegetative and spore) forms of bacteria 2 Destruction of only vegetative forms of bacteria 3 Destruction only spore forms of bacteria 4 is to use only natural methods 5 Assumes use only chemical methods
217 High content oxyacids, lipids and waxes characteristic: 1 tubercle bacillus 2 diphtheria bacilli 3 clostridial tetanus 4 clostridial botulinum 5 Staphylococci
218 In tuberculosis enrichment in sputum added xylene or benzene. What do you call this method: 1 aggregation 2 agglutination 3 flotation 4 precipitation 5 luminescence
Metabolism 219 bacteria happens as a result of: 1 Progressive growth 2 catabolism and anabolism 3 The beneficial effects of environmental conditions 4.-term adverse effects of environmental conditions 5 Chemical reactions
220 With the help of the old tuberculin of Koch can be supplied sample: 1 BCG 2 Pirke 3 Burne 4 Dick 5 Mantoux
221 BCG vaccine is: 1 living bacteria, weakened during passages on animals 2 Attenuated strains M. bovis obtained through long passages on potato-glycerol medium with bile 3 highly virulent strains 4 Toxoid 5 Chemical vaccine
222 Tuberculin: 1 Prepared from microbes and toxins 2 obtained from the filtrate of broth culture of mycobacteria by treatment chemicals precipitating protein 3 is used for the treatment of 4 consists of live bacteria 5 leads to the development of antitoxic immunity
223 Under the growth of bacteria to understand: 1 Transformation 2 Coordinated play all cell components 3 Increase in the number of cells in the population 4 Cell division 5 Segregation daughter DNA strands
224 State B-cell immunity in leprosy reflects the reaction: 1 Wasserman 2 Wright 3 Heddelsona 4 Mitsuda 5 Sachs
225 Gram-positive bacilli, with clavate bristles at the ends containing grain polyphosphates (volutin), located in a smear in the form of Roman numerals V, H. Call these sticks: 1 tubercle bacillus 2 Corynebacterium diphtheria 3 Bacillus subtilis 4 Bacillus anthracis 5 E. coli
226 grains of Babes-Ernst detected when stained by the method: 1 Gram 2 Orzeszkowa 3.Neyssera 4 Romanovsky-Giemsa 5 Hiss
227 The essence of Bacteriological Methods: 1 Bydelenie pure culture 2 Preparation of smear microscopy and 3 Conduct a biological sample 4 Statement of the serological tests 5 Statement of allergy test
228 for pertussis is characterized by: 1.Melkie, gram-negative coccobacillus, strict aerobes form a capsule 2 large sticks with rounded ends 3 Small, Gram-negative bacilli 4 Gram-positive cocci arranged singly 5 sticks of medium size with rounded edges
229 infectious disease characterized by attacks of spasmodic cough as a result of constant irritation toxin receptor airways. On the pathogen of the disease in question: 1 pertussis 2 Diphtheria 3 tuberculosis 4 legionellosis 5 Pneumonia
230 Trust appointment sanitary bacteriological research facilities the environment is: 1: Determination of epidemiological safety 2 Examination of the methods of research facilities 3 The study of non-pathogenic microflora 4: Determination of antibiotic resistance 5 Detection of lysogenic bacteria
231 Form of interspecific relationships in which both populations removed for yourself favor: 1 Commensalism 2 Mutualism 3 Antagonism 4 Parasitism 5 Neutralism
232 Clostridium tetanus: 1 Gram-positive rods with terminal spores peritrichous flagellum 2 Gram-negative rods with subterminal spores monotrihialno flagellum 3 Gram-positive cocci with a centrally located spores 4 Gram-negative bacillus ovoidal bipolar staining 5 Gram positive cocci in a pair of coffee beans
233 Form of interspecific relationships in which the suppression of ability to live a different population: 1 Commensalism 2 Symbiosis 3 Antagonism 4 Parasitism 5 Neutralism
234 Based on the increase in morbidity and inguinal lymph node Education chancre, the doctor has diagnosed - syphilis. In which period is a disease: 1 Primary 2 Incubation 3 Secondary 4 Third 5 Fourth
236. mechanism nutrient into the bacterium: 1 of pinocytosis 2 Phagocytosis 3 Facilitated diffusion 4 Endocytosis 5 Education phagosomes
237 In determining the sensitivity to antibiotics defined zone of growth inhibition around an antibiotic disc, indicating that the: 1 Stimulation of cell metabolism 2 The absence of toxicity 3 Increased membrane permeability 4 Sensitivity of culture 5 protein denaturation
238 According to the type of breathing bacteria are divided into: 1 autotrophs. 2 heterotrophs. 3 Obligate aerobes. 4 Hemotrofy. 5 phototrophic
239 Lag phase is: Phase 1 beginning of intensive growth Phase 2 deaths Phase 3 in which the number of bacterial cells was not increased Phase 4 respiration 5 Phase dying off viruses 240 stationary growth phase: Phase 1 breath 2 Coloring Phase 3 in which the number of bacterial cells was not increased 4 The number of viable cells was consistently and is at a maximum 5 Phase otmironiya bacteria.
241 Antiseptic is: 1 Prevention of microorganisms from entering the environment in human tissue 2 A set of activities aimed at the destruction of bacteria in the tissues human organism 3 disinfects environmental objects 4 Obesplozhivanie 5 Substances selectively inhibit the growth and development of infectious outbreaks in humans
242 phages have: 1 The lack of specificity 2 lytic or lysogenic activity 3 bacterial 4 cellular organization 5 The ability to divide
243 Transformation is carried out using: 1 temperate phage 2 Factor fertility 3 DNA donor culture 4 lysogenization 5 RNA donor culture
244 Morphological features of the pathogen of tularemia: 1 forms the central arrangement of the spores 2 coccobacillus 3 mobility 4 characterized by a pronounced polymorphism 5 Gram
Transduction of 245 consists of the following stages: 1.Rasscheplenie chromosome donor 2.Perenos DNA through the cytoplasmic bridge 3.Vklyuchenie part of the chromosome of the donor into the genome of temperate phage 4.Rekombinatsiya between chromosomes of the recipient 5.Adsorbtsiya DNA donor to the recipient cell
246 For anthrax most dangerous: 1 Meat and meat products Water 2 3 Vegetables 4 Fish products 5 Birds
247 Specific prevention of staphylococcal disease is carried out by: 1 bacteriophage 2 toxoid 3 Serum 4 Interferon 5 Specific prophylaxis is not carried out
248 The use of any product is the most dangerous for brucellosis: 1 Water 2 Milk, cheese, butter, meat 3 Vegetables 4 Fish products 5 Fowl
249 The main natural reservoir of infection in swine: 1 Rodents (gophers, marmots, gerbils) 2 Ticks 3 Sheep 4 Camels 5 Rats
250 for primary syphilis is characterized by: 1 The incubation period lasts for years 2 Education chancre 3 The source of infection - livestock 4 Transmission by droplets 5 Mucosal gastrointestinal
251 antitoxic serum is used to treat: 1 TB 2 Pertussis 3 Dysentery 4 Botulism 5 Kolienterita
252 infectivity of Chlamydia provide: 1 initially calf 2 reticular cells 3 elementary bodies 4 exotoxin 5 Inclusion bodies
253 pyosepticemia this: 1 parasite multiplies in the blood 2 Blood performs only transport role 3 Infectious disease without clinical manifestations 4 The causative agent circulates in the blood and pus forms lesions in organs and systems 5.-associated infection
254 Relapse is: 1 Relapse after complete recovery due to the secondary contamination from outside 2 In the body vegetates pathogenic microbes, but the disease does not occur 3 Form of infection in which the disease is attached to the main other 4 The appearance of the disease some time after its termination due to remaining in the body of pathogens 5 Relapse same infection that has occurred prior to the elimination of the primary disease
255 spirochetosis (Lyme disease), transmissible lice: 1 Leptospirosis 2 Endemic relapsing fever 3 Marseilles fever Omsk hemorrhagic fever 4 5 Relapsing fever
256 The first phase of the pathogenesis of typhoid fever: 1 Bluetongue. 2 Bacteremia 3 convulsive 4 Septic 5 Allergic
257 febrile illness accompanied by damage gray matter of the spinal cord and brain stem: 1 Hepatitis 2 Poliomyelitis 3 Rabies 4 Rubella 5 Enterocolitis
258 acute infectious disease characterized by fever, liver damage, in some cases, jaundice: 1 Campylobacteriosis 2 Hepatitis A 3 Polio 4 Iersinioz 5 Brucellosis
259 Intracellular inclusions have diagnostic value in: 1 rabies 2 typhus 3 Tick-borne encephalitis 4 coxsackievirus infection 5 AIDS
260 The group of paramyxoviruses are pathogens: 1 Smallpox 2 parainfluenza 3 rabies 4 Flu 5 Herpes
261 The man with a history of typhoid fever, wants to work in the nutrition unit. What research is needed to carry out in order to allow it to work: 1 Select the stool culture and put p. Vi-hemagglutination 2 Select stool culture and put p. neutralization 3 Select hemocultures 4 Mark runoff from the nasopharynx 5 Select urinokulturu
262 Immunity of the flu: 1 associated with the production of interferon 2 Non-specific 3 Tense, type-specific 4 antitoxic 5 Non-sterile
263. picornaviruses include: 1 Adenovirus 2 Hepatitis A virus 3 influenza virus 4 Herpes 5 Hepatitis B virus 264 Pathogenesis of poliomyelitis: 1 Defeat hippocampal 2 defeat of muscle tissue 3 The concentration of virus in the parenchymal oragnah 4 defeat motor neurons of the anterior horns of the spinal cord 5 has a tropism for epithelial cells
265 When furiously pathogen accumulates in: 1 Blood 2 Moche 3 Spit 4 bowel movements 5. throat
266 The virus enters the blood parenterally, transferring blood to the liver and replicates in hepatocytes: 1 Hepatitis B 2 Hepatitis A 3 rabies 4 tick-borne encephalitis 5 HIV
267 A child 7 years 2 months after blood transfusion developed jaundice. Laboratory studies have been diagnosed - hepatitis B. What a way to Infections: 1 Vertical 2 Alimentary 3 parenteral 4 Airborne 5 Transmissible
268 HIV belongs to the family: 1. Picornaviridae 2. Adenoviridae 3. Retroviridae 4. Togaviridae 5. Orthomyxoviridae
Function 269, the enzyme reverse transcriptase: 1 is responsible for the integration of HIV into the host cell genome 2 The regulatory protein 3 Determines DNA synthesis on the matrix virion RNA 4 Provides viral entry into the cell 5 Helps release of the nucleic acid of the virus from the genome of the cells
270 The primary method of laboratory diagnosis of HIV infection is: 1 Immunofluorescence 2 Phragmites 3 Radioimmunoassay 4 ELISA 5 Reaction coagulation
271 HIV: 1 Has a cuboidal shape 2 Refers to arboviruses 3 comprises DNA 4 Refers to retroviruses in the outer shell has the gp-120 5 pathogenic to animals
272 HIV affects: 1 anterior horn of the spinal cord 2 human immune system 3 respiratory system 4 salivary glands 5 Muscle tissue
273 Ways of HIV infection: 1 sexual, parenteral, vertical 2 Alimentary 3 Airborne 4 Transmissible 5 Air-dust
274 Characteristic of adenoviruses is: 1 The absence of the outer shell 2 Alimentary route of infection 3 Large sizes 4 The content of RNA 5 susceptibility thereto in laboratory animals
275 organelles fungus required for the synthesis of chitin: 1 Segrosomy 2 Hitosomy 3 Lysosomes 4 Phagosomes 5 phagolysosome
276 When the microscope swab from the urethra found diplococci Gram pair located inside the white blood cells. It may be: 1 Clostridium 2 Staphylococci 3 Streptococci 4 yeasts 5 Gonokokki
277 Mushrooms, reproduce sexually and asexually, it is: 1 deuteromycetes 2 Perfect mushrooms 3 Disputes 4 Ascomycetes 5. Candida
278 What is meant by "disinfection": 1 The destruction of pathogenic forms of microorganisms 2 Freezing 3 Drying 4 Destruction only spore forms 5 Complete elimination of all forms under the influence of chemicals
279 For the development of opportunistic infections is important: 1 Violation of the integrity of the integument 2 Immunodeficiency states 3 Immunological memory 4 Autoimmune diseases 5 immunological paralysis
280 On the development of nosocomial infections is: 1 Reduction of non-specific resistance 2 Malnutrition 3 Climatic conditions 4 Environment 5 Irrational use of antibiotics
281 What does the presence of antibodies to HIV: 1 person is infected with HIV 2 A person is immune from exposure to HIV 3 A man is in the incubation period 4 There is an opportunistic infection 5 There is a recovery
282 The sensitivity of cells to HIV due to the presence: 1 Surface tension 2 CD-4 receptor 3 corresponds to the chemical structure of cells 4 Special enzymes 5 Toxins 283 vital functions of the cytoplasmic membrane: 1 to give some form of bacteria 2 Release in cell metabolites and ions 3 Does not form mezosomy 4 protects cells 5 does not contain the respiratory chain
284 The most sensitive reaction for the detection of antibodies is: 1 Precipitation 2 ELISA 3 Neutralization of toxin 4 Bacterial agglutination 5 immunoelectrophoresis
285 When adding hemolytic system in vitro with bacteriological system K + AT occurred hemolysis. What kind of reaction in question: 1 ELISA 2 PCR 3 RAC 4 Flocculation 5 RIF
286 What is the logarithmic phase (exponential) growth: 1 The number of bacterial cells was not increased Phase 2 the maximum rate of reproduction 3 Phase delay reproduction 4 Lower activity of the bacterial cells 5 Number of bacterial cells was not increased
287 When sowing internal organs mouse dead after intraperitoneal infection with staphylococcus, revealed multiple lesions of the internal organs. What kind of property can be thought of microbe: 1 invasive 2 toxigenic 3 Adhesion 4 aggression 5 Penetration
288 Natural immunity against pathogens coli infection in infants is provided mainly by: 1 fuzobakterii 2 bacteroides 3 tsitrobakter 4 Veylonellami 5 bifidumbacteria
289 When sowing culture in BCH 24 hours strips have fortified under the plug in the tube changed color - one - turned pink, other - black. What it says: 1 Culture allocates saccharolytic enzymes 2 Culture allocates proteolytic enzymes 3 Listed formate fermentation 4 form acids 5 form a gas
290 On the mechanism of action of antiviral drugs are divided into: 1 Drugs that inhibit virus adsorption to the host cell receptors 2 drugs interfere with the process of chemotaxis 3 Drugs that inhibit phagocytosis 4 Drugs - inhibitors gemadsorbtsii 5 Preparations delaying agglutination
291 Which of the structures of the cell wall determines the ability of bacteria to attach to the cell surface: 1 flagella 2 Controversy 3 microvilli (drinking) 4 mezosomy 5 Hitosomy
292 What is a characteristic phase II dysbiosis: 1 is characterized by a significant increase in the number of normal symbionts in natural habitats 2 Changes localization autoflora appear microbes in their unusual habitats 3 Change of pathogens 4 There is a disappearance of some microorganisms by increasing the content of other 5 Modified enzyme activity
293 How are eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells against viruses: 1 contain only one type of nucleic acid 2 Reproduction disjunctive way 3 Do not have a cellular structure 4 have a cellular structure 5 multiply in living cells 6 Do not have your own metabolic systems
294 Under the growth of bacteria to understand: 1 Transformation 2 Coordinated play all cell components 3 Increase in the number of cells in the population 4 Conjugation 5 Segregation daughter DNA strands
295 Meaning of spores in the anthrax: 1 participate in reproduction 2 Contribute to Conservation in adverse conditions 3 Accumulation of additional nutrients 4 Are degenerated cells 5 Participants in the adhesion
296 The causative agent of epidemic relapsing fever is: 1 Tr.pallіdum 2 Bor.recurrentіs 3 Tr.refrіngens 4. Tr.pertenue 5 R.prowazekіі
297 Chemotherapy: 1 Measures to direct suppression or destruction of pathogens in the internal environment of the body 2 Full obesplozhivanie organism 3 Report of the ecological balance between the microbial populations in the composition of the microflora of the human body 4 Destruction of pathogens only protozoal infections 5 Toxic effects on phagotypes
Clone 298 is: 1 The set of individuals of one species 2 cultures isolated from a particular source 3 The set of individuals having one genotype 4 Culture of microorganisms obtained from a single individual 5 Microbial one species grown in a nutrient medium
Plasmids 299 is: 1 Circular DNA molecules dvunitievoy 2 is a derivative of the cytoplasmic membrane 3 is essential for cell 4 of nutrients 5 Centers of protein synthesis
300 from other groups of microorganisms actinomycetes characterized in that: 1 Have the form of long branching filaments 2 Gram 3 Acid 4 Have grain volutin 5 As part of the peptidoglycan found arabinose, galactose
301 division of the kingdom into two Vira subkingdoms made by: 1 environmental attributes 2 According to the type of nucleic acid DNA or RNA 3 Morphological characteristics 4. tinctorial ossobenno 5 cytopathogenic effect
302 obligate intracellular parasites of man, living in the body of arthropods and transmitted mainly transmissible by: 1 Mycoplasma 2 Chlamydia 3 Spirogety 4 Actinomycetes 5 Rickettsia
303 The presence of enzymes in bacteria detected by the decomposition: 1 carbohydrates 2 Acid 3 alkalis 4 Gas 5 Indicators
304 With the help of the enzyme catalase bacteria break down: 1 Lipids 2 Carbohydrates 3 Proteins 4 Peroxide 5 Water
Period 305 is the generation of: 1 Time microbes adapt to changing environmental conditions 2 The period of restoration of damaged structures 3 Integration with bacterial chromosome 4 The period during which the cell division 5 Period reduce the rate of cell death 306 aerobes carry out: 1 substrate phosphorylation 2 Fermentation 3 Oxidative phosphorylation 4 Glycolysis 5 of the pentose phosphate shunt
307 cytopathogenic effect of viruses: 1 Do not depend on the physical, chemical and biological factors of the environment 2 depends only on the infectivity of the virus 3 rises under the influence of interferon 4 used to indicate the virus 5 used in the identification of viruses
308 Phase interaction virulent phage with the bacterial cell: 1 Chemotaxis Integration on chromosome 2 3 Intracellular digestion Lysis of the cells 4 5 DNA transfer through the cytoplasmic bridge
309 prophage: 1 cause lysis of bacteria 2 Propagated in lysogenic bacteria without destroying them 3 is used for phage typing of bacteria 4 material carrier of heredity 5 Has bacteriostatic action
310 prophage in lysogenic bacteria: 1 is integrated into the chromosome of bacterial cells 2 lysis 3 is the inclusion of 4 is used for phage typing of cultures 5 Represents the accumulation of chromosomal
311 One of the main factors of pathogenicity of the tubercle bacillus is: 1 Generation gistotoksina 2 Development of the neurotoxin 3 Education and hyaluronidase plazmokoagulazy 4 Toxic glycolipid - Korf factor 5 The presence of flagella and pili
312 The main factor pathogenicity diphtheria bacilli: 1 neurotoxin 2 Gistotoksin 3 enterotoxin 4 Endotoxin 5 The ability to protect themselves from phagocytosis
313 Main role in the pathogenesis of meningococcal disease has: 1 capsule protects meningococci from phagocytosis 2 Mobility, due to the presence of flagella 3 Development of exotoxin 4 The presence of toxic surface glycolipid 5 Development of toxin-superantigen
314 For bubonic plague is characterized by way of infection: 1 parenteral 2 Fecal-oral 3 Airborne 4 Alimentary 5 Transmissible
315 Tensions postvaccination immunity can be assessed: 1 specific antigen in the blood 2 determine the titer of antibodies in serum 3 According to the characteristic clinical manifestations 4. pathogen isolation from clinical specimens from human 5 immediate hypersensitivity
316 In a smear of the discharge of the chancre with dark-field microscopy can be seen corkscrew microbe performing rotation, flexion and pendulum-like motion. What kind of exciter likely to think: 1. T. Pallidum 2. Leptospira 3. B. Duttoni 4. B. Recurrentis 5. B. Persica
317 The structure of the bacteriological laboratory includes: 1 Sredovarochnaya 2 Room spektroanaliza 3 dressings 4 Procedural 5 Operating
318 Procaryotae Kingdom is divided into sections: 1 Hemoorganotrofy 2 Viruses 3 Skotobakterii 4 Bacillus 5 Anaerobes
319 Amfitrihi this: 1 flagella at both poles of the cell 2 At one extreme - one flagellum 3 beam flagella 4 flagella over the entire surface 5 Thin hollow filaments of protein nature
320 T-helper cells: 1 Provide cell specific immunity 2 Learn determinant group antigens on the membrane of macrophages 3 the synthesis of immunoglobulins 4 Pull the synthesis of antibodies Destroy 5 cell "target", carrying a foreign antigen
321 The main feature of adaptive immunity: 1 Species sign 2 specific 3 is inherited 4 nonspecific 5 Relative
322 Acquired immunity: 1 is developed as a result of changes in the genotype 2 Occurs when artificial immunization 3 is a congenital 4 Genetically fixed sign 5 is inherited
323 Artificial passive immunity: 1 provides a mechanical barrier 2 is produced after the introduction of vaccines 3 obtained after administration of vaccines 4 is acquired after the administration of immune sera 5 Dispatched in breast milk
324 The barrier function of the skin and mucous membranes: 1 antagonistic effect 2 Mechanical barrier 3 The action of complement 4 Appears when administered vaccines 5 has specific character
325 The protective role of the normal microflora of the skin and mucous membranes: 1 Barrier-fixing 2 Mechanical barrier 3 Antagonism to pathogens 4 creates as a result of immune sera 5 Not in humans
326 Cell protective factors of natural immunity: 1 Complement 2 Phagocytes 3 Properdin 4 Antibodies 5 Interferon
327 Lysozyme: 1 Carbohydrate 2 lipoprotein 3 enzyme murominidaza 4 has bactericidal activity against bacterial cell wall polysaccharides 5 Suppresses the normal microflora
328 Antibodies: 1 Immunoglobulins 2 Albumin 3 enzyme murominidaza 4 interacts with macrophages 5 Enzymes pathogenicity
329 Mobile macrophages: 1 Monocytes 2 Reticular cells 3 endothelial cells 4 bone marrow stromal 5 Neutrophils 330 Functions of phagocytes: 1 Participation in the synthesis of antibodies 2 The destruction of microorganisms 3 bactericidal action 4 The antagonistic effect 5 binds to the antigen-antibody complex
331 Artificial active immunity: 1 is created with the introduction of the vaccine 2 There is a few hours 3 Lasts 2-3 weeks 4 Sent through the placenta 5 not specific
332 Viral antigens: 1 Hemagglutinin 2.-somatic 3.-Antigen 4 autoantigen 5 H-flagelyarny
333 immunocompetent cells are: 1 Erythrocytes 2 Fibroblasts 3 Platelets 4 T-and B-lymphocytes 5 ganglia nerve cells
334 Mushrooms candidates are: 1 deuteromycetes 2 basidiomycetes 3 Ascomycetes 4 phycomycetes 5 yeast-
335 The main test material for the detection of gonorrhea: 1 Pus 2 Urine 3 CSF 4 Blood 5 Saliva
336 Functions of the cell wall: 1 Gives bacteria form 2 Stores in adverse conditions 3 Protects against phagocytosis 4 It is the site of synthesis of the protein 5 is synthesized permeases
337 oral commensal having anticaries action: 1 Actinomycetes 2 Veylonelly 3 Lactobacilli 4 Streptococci 5 Staphylococci
338 spirochetes and Bacteroides begin to vegetate in the mouth: 1 Immediately after birth 2 When teething 3 To 14-15 years 4 In the elderly 5 If you have a removable denture
339 The combination of contributing to the development of dental caries: 1 Excess sucrose, poor hygiene, lack of acid 2 The excess sucrose, hygiene, lack of acid 3 Excess sucrose, poor hygiene, the presence of acid 4 Deficit sucrose, poor hygiene, the presence of acid 5 Deficit sucrose, hygiene, lack of acid
340 Which occurring oral pathology demonstrates microbial synergy: 1 Tuberculosis 2 Actinomycosis 3 Candidiasis 4 Caries 5 Herpes
341 obligate anaerobes begin to vegetate in the mouth: 1 Immediately after birth 2 Breastfeeding 3 When teething 4 When mixed feeding 5 At the age of seven
342 leading role in the etiology of dental caries is played: 1 spirochetes 2 Mycoplasma 3 Streptococci 4 Corynebacterium 5 Neisser
343.Etiologicheskuyu role in the development of periodontal disease are: 1 Streptococci 2 Bacteroides 3 Staphylococci 4 Veylonelly 5 Lactobacilli
344 Gram-positive aerobic rods relating to permanent microflora of the oral cavity: 1 Lactobacilli 2 Leptospires 3 Veylonelly 4 Typhoid sticks 5 Haemophilus influenzae
345 Gram-negative anaerobic rods belonging to the permanent microflora of the oral cavity: 1 Leptospires 2 E. coli 3 Corynebacterium. 4 Bacteroides 5 Propionobakterii
346 Gram-positive anaerobic cocci related to ongoing oral microflora: 1 peptokokki 2 Staphylococci 3 Enterobacteriaceae 4 Lactobacilli 5 Streptococci
347 Gram-negative anaerobic cocci related to ongoing oral microflora: 1 peptokokki 2 Lactobacilli 3 Neisser 4 Enterobacteriaceae 5 Veylonelly
348 Gram-positive anaerobic cocci of the oral cavity: 1 Enterobacteriaceae 2 stafilokok 3 Streptococci 4 Veylonelly 5 peptokokki 349 The main role in the pathogenesis of periodontal disease by: 1 Microbial factors 2 Immune Mechanism 3 cellular mechanisms 4 humoral factors 5 hormonal factors
350 Name the virus, which has immunosuppressive effects, long-term persistent in the body that causes recurrent exacerbations with lesions of the mouth and lips: Herpes simplex virus 1 2 FMD virus 3 Vesicular stomatitis virus 4 The measles virus 5 HIV
351 zoonotic viral infection with oral mucosal lesions: 1 Foot and mouth disease 2 Herpes 3 Enterovirus infection 4 Measles 5 Mumps
352 To what family of viruses belong to vesicular stomatitis virus: 1 picornavirus 2 rhabdoviridae 3 reovirus 4 Retroviruses 5 orthomyxoviruses
353 Dentist at occupational risk of infection: 1 leptospirosis 2 actinomycosis 3 Hepatitis B 4 gonorrhea 5 Syphilis
354 Specify a factor contributing to decalcification of teeth: 1 Hypothermia 2 Alkaline conditions 3 The acidic environment 4 Hypersalivation 5 The use of hot drinks and food
355 What bacteria play a major role in the damage of tooth enamel: 1 acidifying 2 Acid 3 Mobile 4 Toxigenic 5 Pathogenic
356 Which of the proceeding in the oral microbial infections demonstrates synergy: 1 Tuberculosis 2 Actinomycosis 3 Candidiasis 4 Caries 5 Herpes
357 The normal microflora of the oral cavity can cause illness if: 1 decreased immunity 2 Increased immunity 3 Frequent rinses 4 hypersalivation 5 untimely power
358. oral anaerobes begin to vegetate: 1 Immediately after birth 2 Breastfeeding 3 When teething 4 When mixed feeding 5 At the age of seven
359 In the etiology of dental caries play a leading role: 1 spirochetes 2 Mycoplasma 3 Streptococci 4 Corynebacterium 5 Neisser
360 Ckoplenie bacteria on the tooth enamel matrix organic substances named: 1 plaque 2 Caries 3 Periodontitis 4 Pulpitis 5 Periodontitis
361 How is the process of demineralization and softening of dental hard tissues with the subsequent formation of the cavity: 1 plaque 2 Caries 3 Pulpitis 4 Periodontitis 5 Periodontitis
362 Value of Medical Microbiology for dentists: 1 does not matter 2 plays a minor role 3 Required to orthopedic work 4 is needed for correction of occlusion 5.Neobhodima in the study of inflammatory diseases
363 When stomatitis happens defeat: 1 Oral mucosal 2 gums 3 Dental Enamel 4 dentin of the teeth 5 Periodontal
364 Microorganisms, initiating the formation of dental plaque on the stage of the pellicle: 1 Streptococci 2 Veylonelly 3 Corynebacterium 4 Actinomycetes 5 fusiform bacteria
365 K-purulent inflammatory diseases of the mucous membranes of the mouth and lips are: 1 gingivostomatitis 2 fronts 3 Pharyngitis 4 Tonsillitis 5 Caries
366 Pathogens gingivostomatitis Vincent: 1 fuzobakterii treponemy 2 fuzobakterii Borrelia 3 fuzobakterii leptospira 4 Veylonelly 5 fuzobakterii gonococci
367 Productive viral infection is to: 1 Defeat nuclear substance. 2 Destruction of cellular ribosomes. 3 The formation of new virions 4 Transformation of the affected cells in malignant 5 Interferences viruses
368 Stomatogenny sepsis caused by: 1 influenza virus 2 streptococcal 3 of Escherichia coli 4 clostridial 5 Shigella
369 Heylitvyzyvaetsya: 1. Treponema radialis 2. Candida albicans 3. Staphylococcus aureus 4. Coccidioides immitis 5. Neisseria sicca
370 What is the pathological process in the oral cavity caused by tortuous forms of bacteria (spirochete) 1 Tuberculosis 2 Actinomycosis 3 Candidiasis 4 Syphilis 5 Leprosy
371 The nature of the pathological changes in the oral cavity of varicella: 1.-Koplik spots Filatova 2 Papules 3 pustules 4 vesicles 5 Petechiae
372 The appearance of scars in the corners of the mouth (scars Robinson-Fournier) is characteristic: 1 Fuzospirohetoza 2 of congenital syphilis 3 Candida 4 Herpes 5 FMD 372 The appearance of scars in the corners of the mouth (scars Robinson-Fournier) is characteristic: 1 Fuzospirohetoza 2 of congenital syphilis 3 Candida 4 Herpes 5 FMD
373 In the etiopathogenesis of acute (focal) pulpitis involved: 1 Shigella 2 Salmonella 3 Streptococci 4 Yersinia 5 Klebsiella
374 Pathogen prosthetic stomatitis: 1 Mushrooms candida 2 Actinomycetes 3 Veylonelly 4 Streptococci 5 Neisser
375 Specific protection of the oral cavity: 1 Lysozyme 2 Lactoferrin 3 lactoperoxidase 4 Complement 5 Immunoglobulins
376 Protivokarioznye commensal oral cavity: 1 Actinomycetes 2 Veylonelly 3 Lactobacilli 4 Streptococci 5 Staphylococci
377 Bacteria damaging tooth enamel: 1 of acid 2 Lactobacilli 3 fuzobakterii 4 Liptospira 5 Triponema
378 Pathogen Herpangina: 1 Poliovirus 2 coxsackievirus and 3 Coxsackie virus in 4 Hepatitis B virus and 5 ECHO virus
379 Biotope oral cavity with the most low-O2: 1 buccal mucosa 2 Oral Fluid 3 The tooth surface 4 surface of the tongue 5 periodontal pocket
380 Biotope mouth, in which the most high proportion of aerobes: 1 periodontal pocket 2 surface of the tongue 3 The tooth surface 4 Oral fluid 5 buccal mucosa
Level 3 - 160 questions
381 Manifestations of HIV in their mouths: the cavity: 1 Influenza 2 hairy leukoplakia 3 Pneumocystis pneumonia 4 Atypical mycobacteriosis 5 Generalized cytomegalovirus infection
Feature 382 phagocytosis in the oral cavity: 1 Incomplete phagocytosis 2 Lack of phagocytes in saliva 3 Fixation of phagocytes to the epithelium 4 A large number of free phagocytes in saliva 5 The absence of the protective properties of phagocytes oral
383 Vesicular stomatitis is transmitted: 1 Contact 2 Alimentary 3 Air-dust 4 Airborne 5 Transmissible (mosquito bite)
384.Uskorennaya diagnosis of tuberculosis: 1 Bacteriological method 2: Method of Ziehl-Nielsen 3 Allergic method 4 Method of microcultures 5 Biological
385.V haemagglutination involved: 1 sheep erythrocytes 2 Erythrocytes chickens 3 of human erythrocytes 4 equine erythrocytes 5 rabbit erythrocytes
386. type influenza virus was determined in the reaction: 1 hemagglutination 2 precipitation 3 agglutination 4 immunofluorescence 5 hemagglutination inhibition
387 Infection of chick embryo applies to: 1 virological diagnostic method 2 culture methods of diagnosis 3 Allergic finding method 4 biological methods of diagnosis 5 of serological diagnostic methods
388 Test material for laboratory diagnosis of influenza: 1 Urine 2 Feces 3 Sputum 4 Serum 5 CSF
389 To display the virus used: 1 agglutination 2 Reaction precipitation 3 haemagglutination 4 Responses Coombs 5 Responses Ascoli
390.Do infection in chicken embryo browsing: 1.Tsitoskope 2.Mikroskope 3.Ovoskope 4.Tsentrifuge 5.Stetoskope
391 A condition in which abjection continues after clinical recovery of the patient, is called: 1 Relapse 2 Sepsis 3 bacteriocarrier 4 auto-infection 5 Endogenous infection 392 The term "penetration" in relation to the factors of pathogenic bacteria means: 1 Attach the microbial cells to the surface 2 microbial growth in adhesion 3 Penetration of germs through the mucous membranes and connective tissue barriers 4 Penetration of microbes inside the cells 5 Development of toxins
393 cytotoxin: 1 leukocidin 2 toxin genes 3 neurotoxin 4 Dermonekrotoksin 5 eksfoliatin
394 In order to identify the causative agent of tuberculosis is used for coloring: 1 Orzeszkowa 2 Ziehl-Neelsen 3 Zdrodovsky 4 Leffler 5 Neisser
395 To identify the causative agent of tuberculosis using a test to determine: 1 Plazmokoagulazy 2 Lecithinase 3 Nikotinamidazy 4 Catalase 5 Dermonekrotoksina
396 The mechanism of malaria: 1 Sexual 2 Fecal-oral 3 Transmissible 4 Airborne 5 Air-dust
397 Test materials for the diagnosis of malaria is: 1 Urine 2 Feces 3 CSF 4 Sputum 5 Blood
398 for malaria diagnosis method is used: 1 Microscopic "hanging drop" 2 Bacteriological 3 Allergic Microscopic 4 "thick drop" 5 Biological
399 plasmids that control the formation of enterotoxins: 1. Ent - plasmid 2. Hly - plasmid 3. Col - plasmid 4. R - plasmids 5. F - plasmid
400 Allergic method for diagnosis of tuberculosis involves the use of: 1 lepromin 2 Tuberculin 3 Antraksina 4 brucellin 5 colicin
401 To identify the color of caps are used: 1 Orzeszkowa 2 Ziehl-Nielsen 3 Hiss 4 Romanovsky-Giemsa 5 Neisseria
402 To identify the color of spores used by: 1 Leffler 2 Orzeszkowa 3 Gram 4 Ziehl-Neelsen 5 Burri
403 for acid-fast bacilli stain is used by: 1.Gramu 2.Ozheshko 3.Burri Hins- 4 + Ziehl-Neelsen 5 Leffler
404 To determine the bacterial motility method is used: 1 "Hanging" drop 2 Fixed smear 3 Cultivation agar 4 TPHA 5 ELISA
405 For the production of skin-allergy tests are used for diagnostic purposes: 1 Tuberculin 2 BCG 3 Tetanus toxoid 4 Vaccines 5 Colibacterin
406 For the diagnosis of staphylococcal sepsis apply: 1 direct microscopy of blood 2 Blood cultures on sugar broth 3 Blood cultures on blood agar 4 Blood culture on VSA 5 immunofluorescence method
407 antiglobulin serum. labeled with horseradish peroxidase is used for: 1 RAC 2 ELISA 3 PHA 4 Agglutination reactions 5 immunofluorescence method
408 With the help of Wright's reaction reveal: 1 Tuberculosis 2 Brucellosis 3 Syphilis 4 Tularemia 5 Chlamydia
409 What kind of allergic reaction is used for brucellosis: 1 Mantoux 2 Tuberculin 3 samples Burne 4 Antraksina 5 Lyuetina
410 Serological diagnosis of brucellosis: 1 RAC 2 Reaction Heddelsona 3 Wasserman 4 Widal reaction 5 Reaction Yermolyeva
411 What drug is used for the specific prevention of tuberculosis: 1 Tuberculin. 2 Isoniazid. BCG 3. 4 antitoxic serum. 5 Tubazid
412 Identification of the selected culture produced by defining the following attributes: 1 Clinical 2 tinctorial 3 radiographically 4 Ultrasonic 5 antibiotikochuvstvitelnosti
413 For the diagnosis of primary syphilis are used: 1 The reaction of precipitation 2 ELISA 3 dark field microscopy of 4 The reaction Vidal 5 The reaction Wright
414 The method of rapid diagnosis of viral infections is: 1 Immunofluorescence 2 Virological method 3 agglutination 4 allergy tests 5 Bacteriological method
415 Bacteriological diagnosis method: 1 Bydelyayut pure culture with subsequent identification 2 Infect cell culture 3 infect experimental animals 4 Determine the antigenic structure 5 Make a Gram stain 416 The essence of microscopy diagnostic method: 1 Preparation of smear microscopy and 2 Isolation of pure culture 3 Identification of the selected culture 4 Infection of experimental animals 5: Determination of the antigenic structure
417 Bacteriological method of diagnosis: 1 Isolation of pure culture 2 smear 3 Infection of experimental animals 4: Determination of the antigenic structure 5 Statement of allergy test
418 agglutination test is used to: 1 Definitions of microorganisms in the environment 2 Indication of bacteria 3 Indication of viruses 4 serodiagnosis of infectious diseases 5 Definitions rigging products
419 is used for the precipitation reaction: 1 Diagnosis of infectious diseases 2 Definitions of microbial contamination of the soil 3 Definitions complement levels 4 Definitions of blood group 5 Indications of bacteria
420 Serological tests are used to: 1 Prevention of Infectious Diseases 2 Therapy of Infectious Diseases 3 Diagnosis of Infectious Diseases 4 Sanitary-hygienic studies 5 Definitions of biochemical activity
421 For the production of agglutination should be applied: 1 corpuscular antigen. 2 Complement. 3 Normal serum. 4 antigen in a colloidal state. 5 Antibodies lysines.
422 gel precipitation reaction is studied for: 1 Titration of lysozyme 2 Studies of antibiotic resistance 3 Definitions toxigenicity microorganisms 4 Definitions of blood group 5 Titration of complement
423 What is the method used to sterilize laboratory glassware and instruments: Boil 1 2 Pasteurization 3 Autoclaving 4 Tinsdalizatsiya 5 Filtering
424 Which method is used to detect (indicating) virus in tissue cultures: 1 cytopathic effect 2 Flatulence 3 Transformation 4 Conjugation 5 Dissociation
425 Simple staining techniques used for: 1 Identify the shell 2 Studies forms of microbes 3 capsules Stains 4 Studies of cultural properties 5 Stains plasmids
426 Application method for staining spirochetes: 1 Romanovsky-Giemsa 2 Gram 3 Ziehl-Nielsen 4 Zdrodovsky 5 Burri
427 The main method for coloring primenyayuschysya Bacteria 1. Neisser 2 Gram 3 According to Morozov 4. Leffler 5.-Burri Hins
428 In smears of the inferior turbinate using labeled influenza serum identified influenza viruses. applied: 1 Coombs' test 2 ELISA 3 RIA 4 The reaction Koons 5 RAC
429 To complement fixation include: 1 reaction Koons 2 The reaction Coombs 3 Wasserman 4 ELISA 5 RIA
430 For the diagnosis of diphtheria primenyut stain smears: 1 Gram 2 Neisser 3 Morozov 4 Leffler 5.-Burri Hins
431 For the cultivation of pathogenic anaerobes used medium: 1.-Bismuth sulfite agar 2 Wednesday Wilson-Blair 3 Wednesday Bordet-Gengou 4 Wednesday Leffler 5 IPA
432 phage typing is used to: 1 Biological indication of ionizing radiation 2 Definitions of pathogenic bacteria 3 Preparation of the vaccine strains 4 increased virulence of bacteria 5 establish the source of infection
433 For the cultivation of anaerobes used: 1 Distiller 2 Anaerobic 3 The unit of Koch 4 Oven Pasteur 5 Autoclave
434 For the cultivation of anaerobes used: 1 IPA 2 BCH 3 Environments Hiss 4 Alkaline Agar 5 Wednesday Kitty Tarotsi
435 Test material for suspected rabies: 1 Spinal Cord 2 Urine 3 Feces 4 slices of the cerebellum 5 cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)
436 For the prevention of anthrax: 1 DTP 2 STI vaccine 3 Toxoid 4 antitoxic serum 5 BCG vaccine
437 For specific diphtheria use: 1 DTP 2 BCG 3 Chemical vaccine 4 Antraksin 5 Bacteriophage
438 for the serological diagnosis of syphilis is used: 1 Wasserman 2 The reaction of Ascoli 3 Mitsuda reaction 4 The reaction Schick 5 The reaction Dick
439 In order to identify the source of infection and transmission of the pathogen are used: 1: Determination of plazmokoagulazy 2 phage typing 3 serodiagnosis 4 Bacterioscopic study 5 The biological method
440 for the laboratory diagnosis of HIV infection is used: 1 Immunofluorescence 2 Phragmites 3 Radioimmunoassay 4 ELISA 5 Reaction coagulation 441 To isolate the tubercle bacilli are used: 1 IPA 2 Blood Agar 3 Tuesday Tinsdalya 4 Lowenstein-Jensen medium 5 of the yolk-salt agar
442 for the laboratory diagnosis of BGA is used: 1 Detection of virus antigen by immunoassay 2 Infection of cell culture 3 neutralization 4 HIT 5 Detection of IgM antibodies
443 to indicate the use of influenza virus: 1 The color sample 2 RAC 3 The reaction of Ascoli 4 The reaction of hemagglutination 5 The reaction gemadsorbtsii
444 The structure of viruses studied by: 1 Light microscopy 2 darkfield microscopy 3 fluorescent microscopy 4 + electron microscopy 5 paper electrophoresis
445 On day 2 the allocation of a pure culture of microbes aerobes produce: 1 Seeding on Wednesday Hiss 2 Identification of culture 3 Seeding on sloping IPA 4 Sowing on MPA 5: Determination of proteolytic enzymes
446 From the mouth to the bacteriological examination is taken: 1 before eating 2 During the meal 3 Immediately after ingestion 4 2-3 hours after ingestion 5 Anytime
447 Dental instruments are sterilized using: 1 1% solution of chlorine bleach 2 boiled 3 3% phenol solution 4 Dry heat (in a hot air oven) 5 to 70% alcohol
448 colony-forming ability of saliva was determined by: 1 bacterioscopic method 2 serological methods 3 Biological methods 4 Planting saliva on a cup of IPA 5 Titration of lysozyme
449 motile bacteria opredeleyayut using the method: 1 "crushed" drop 2 Fixed smear 3 Cultivation agar 4 TPHA 5 ELISA
450 To investigate oral candidiasis seeded on: 1 medium Endo 2 medium Clauberg 3 Tuesday Saburo 4 casein-coal environment 5 Blood agar
451 For serological diagnosis of influenza using the reaction: 1 agglutination 2 precipitation 3 hemagglutination inhibition 4 Neutralization 5 Flocculation
452 What is the method used to determine the antibiotic susceptibility: Method 1 gram stain 2: Method paper discs 3 Virological method 4 Allergic method 5 The biological method
453 To isolate streptococci from pus apply: 1 Blood agar 2 of the yolk-salt agar 3 medium Endo 4 medium Levin 5 Alkaline Agar
454 To isolate the causative agent of tuberculosis medium is used: 1 IPA 2 Blood Agar 3 Tuesday Tinsdalya 4 Potato-glycerol agar 5 VSA
455 for the routine identification of Mycobacterium tuberculosis using: 1 aerobic and anaerobic degradation of mannitol 2 Reduction of nitrate 3 fluorescence microscopy 4 niacin trial 5 Mantoux
456 Druze Lumpy can be identified using: 1 Microscopic method 2 Bacteriological method 3 Microscopy native preparations 4 Immunofluorescence method 5 ELISA
457 Test materials for the isolation of influenza virus is: 1 Blood 2 Feces 3 Liquor 4 Nasopharyngeal wash 5 Urine
458 A microscopic method of diagnosis of gonorrhea using: 1 Discharge urethra 2 CSF 3 punctate from a bubo 4 The blood of the patient 5 stools
459 Test material for research in the RAC for syphilis: 1 Urine 2 Sputum 3 Discharge gummas 4 serum of patients 5 stools
460 Which method you use color to identify capsules: 1 Orzeszkowa 2 Ziehl-Nielsen 3 Hiss 4 Romanovsky-Giemsa 5 Neisseria
461 For specific prevention of gonorrhea use: 1 autovaccine 2 Toxoid 3 Bacteriophage 4 specific gamma globulin 5 Missing
462 In the 1st day of the study in the allocation of a pure culture of aerobic microbes seeded on: 1 cup with IPA 2 Beveled IPA 3 Environments Gisa 4 Russell's Environment 5 Gall broth
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